Mathematics

Mathematics

Problem

If y=sin⁡(sin⁡x)y = \sin(\sin x) , then prove that y′′+(tan⁡x)y′+ycos⁡2x=0.y'' + (\tan x) y' + y \cos^2 x = 0.
Intuitive explanation

The key is to recognize that you're differentiating a composite function, so the chain rule will create terms involving cos⁡(sin⁡x)\cos(\sin x) that persist through both derivatives. Once you have y′y' and y′′y'', the trick is to factor out common expressions—particularly cos⁡(sin⁡x)\cos(\sin x)—and use the identity sin⁡2(sin⁡x)+cos⁡2(sin⁡x)=1\sin^2(\sin x) + \cos^2(\sin x) = 1 to simplify the resulting combination. This transforms what looks messy into an elegant identity.

Intuitive explanation

The key is to recognize that you're differentiating a composite function, so the chain rule will create terms involving cos⁡(sin⁡x)\cos(\sin x) that persist through both derivatives. Once you have y′y' and y′′y'', the trick is to factor out common expressions—particularly cos⁡(sin⁡x)\cos(\sin x)—and use the identity sin⁡2(sin⁡x)+cos⁡2(sin⁡x)=1\sin^2(\sin x) + \cos^2(\sin x) = 1 to simplify the resulting combination. This transforms what looks messy into an elegant identity.

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