Problem

Problem

Given f(x)=1xf(x) = \frac{1}{x} , x≠0x \neq 0 , show that ff is self-inverse.
Intuitive explanation

A function is self-inverse when applying it twice returns you to where you started—that is, f(f(x))=xf(f(x)) = x. The key insight is that reciprocals have a special symmetry: taking the reciprocal of a reciprocal undoes itself. You'll compute f(f(x))f(f(x)) by substituting f(x)f(x) back into the original function and simplify to confirm you get xx back.

Intuitive explanation

A function is self-inverse when applying it twice returns you to where you started—that is, f(f(x))=xf(f(x)) = x. The key insight is that reciprocals have a special symmetry: taking the reciprocal of a reciprocal undoes itself. You'll compute f(f(x))f(f(x)) by substituting f(x)f(x) back into the original function and simplify to confirm you get xx back.

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