Mathematics

Mathematics

Problem

Explain why, if ff is differentiable with f(2)=5f(2)=5 and f′(2)=0f'(2)=0, the inverse function of ff is not differentiable at x=5x=5.
Intuitive explanation

The key insight is that the derivative of an inverse function is given by (f−1)′(y)=1f′(f−1(y))(f^{-1})'(y) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(y))}. Since f(2)=5f(2) = 5, we know f−1(5)=2f^{-1}(5) = 2. But f′(2)=0f'(2) = 0, which makes the denominator zero—so the formula breaks down and the inverse has a vertical tangent at x=5x = 5. A vertical tangent means the inverse function isn't differentiable there.

Intuitive explanation

The key insight is that the derivative of an inverse function is given by (f−1)′(y)=1f′(f−1(y))(f^{-1})'(y) = \frac{1}{f'(f^{-1}(y))}. Since f(2)=5f(2) = 5, we know f−1(5)=2f^{-1}(5) = 2. But f′(2)=0f'(2) = 0, which makes the denominator zero—so the formula breaks down and the inverse has a vertical tangent at x=5x = 5. A vertical tangent means the inverse function isn't differentiable there.

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