Quantum Field Theory and the Standard Model by Schwartz M.D. z-lib.org · Problem 10.1

Spinors — Schwartz M.D. z-lib.org

Physics — QFT · dirac-equation-nonrelativistic-limit

Problem

We saw that the Dirac equation predicted that there is interaction between the electron spin and the magnetic field, S⃗B⃗\vec{S}\vec{B}, with strength μB=ℏc2me\mu_B = \frac{\hbar c}{2m_e}. When the electron has angular momentum L⃗\vec{L}, such as in an atomic orbital, there is also a B⃗L⃗\vec{B}\vec{L} interaction and a spin-orbit coupling S⃗L⃗\vec{S}\vec{L}. The Dirac equation (along with symmetry arguments) predicts the strength of all three interactions, as well as other corrections. To see the effect of these terms on the hydrogen atom, we have to take the non-relativistic limit. (a) For the Schr\"odinger equation, we need the Hamiltonian, not the Lagrangian. Find the Dirac Hamiltonian by writing the Dirac equation as i∂tψ=HDψi\partial_t \psi = H_D \psi. Write the Hamiltonian in terms of momenta pip_i rather than derivatives ∂i\partial_i. (b) Calculate (HD+eA0)2(H_D + eA_0)^2 in the Weyl representation for ψ=(ψLψR)\psi = (\psi_L \psi_R). Leave in terms of σi\sigma_i, pip_i and AiA_i. Put back in the factors of cc and ℏ\hbar, keeping the charge ee dimensionless. (c) Now take the square root of this result and expand in 1c\frac{1}{c}, subtracting off the zero-point energy mc2mc^2, i.e. compute H=HD−mc2H = H_D - mc^2 to order c0c^0. Looking at the σi\sigma_i term, how big are the electron's electric and magnetic dipole moments? (d) The size of the terms in this Hamiltonian are only meaningful because the spin and angular momentum operators have the same normalization. Check the normalization of the angular momentum operators Li=εijkxjpkL_i = \varepsilon_{ijk} x_j p_k and the spin operators Si=12σiS_i = \frac{1}{2}\sigma_i by showing that they both satisfy the rotation algebra: [Ji,Jj]=iεijkJk[J_i, J_j] = i\varepsilon_{ijk} J_k. (e) The gyromagnetic ratio, geg_e (sometimes called the gg-factor), is the relative size of the S⃗B⃗\vec{S}\vec{B} and L⃗B⃗\vec{L}\vec{B} interactions. Choose a constant magnetic field in the zz direction, then isolate the BzLzB_z L_z coupling in HH. Extract the electron gyromagnetic ratio geg_e by writing the entire coupling to the magnetic field in the Hamiltonian as μBBz(Lz+geSz)=Bzμz\mu_B B_z(L_z + g_e S_z) = B_z \mu_z, with μ⃗≡μB(L⃗+geS⃗)\vec{\mu} \equiv \mu_B(\vec{L} + g_e \vec{S}). How could you experimentally measure geg_e (e.g. with spectroscopy of the hydrogen atom)? (f) In spherical coordinates, the Schr\"odinger equation has a L⃗2\vec{L}^2 term. With spin, you might expect that this becomes L⃗μ⃗=μB(L⃗2+geL⃗S⃗)\vec{L}\vec{\mu} = \mu_B(\vec{L}^2 + g_e \vec{L}\vec{S}), making the L⃗S⃗\vec{L}\vec{S} term proportional to the gg-factor. This is wrong. It misses an important relativistic effect, Thomas precession. It is very hard to calculate directly, but easy to calculate using symmetries. With no magnetic field, the atom, with spin included, is still rotationally invariant. Which of J⃗=L⃗+S⃗\vec{J} = \vec{L} + \vec{S} or μ⃗=L⃗+geS⃗\vec{\mu} = \vec{L} + g_e \vec{S} is conserved (i.e. commutes with HH)? Using this result, how does the spin-orbit coupling depend on geg_e? (g) There are additional relativistic effects coming from the Dirac equation. Expand the Dirac equation to next order in 1c2\frac{1}{c^2}, producing a term that scales as p⃗4\vec{p}^4. (h) Now let us do some dimensional analysis -- there is only one scale mem_e. Show that the electron's Compton wavelength, the classical electron radius, rer_e, the Bohr radius, a0a_0, and the inverse-Rydberg constant, Ry−1\mathrm{Ry}^{-1}, are all mem_e times powers of αe\alpha_e. Are the splittings due to the p4p^4 term fine structure (ΔE∼αe2E\Delta E \sim \alpha_e^2 E), hyperfine structure (ΔE∼αe4E\Delta E \sim \alpha_e^4 E) or something else? [Hint: write out a formula for the energy shift using time-dependent perturbation theory, then see which of the above length scales appears.]

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