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Mathematics
Mathematics
Problem
Explain briefly why, after replacing
u
=
sin
x
u=\sin x
u
=
sin
x
and adjusting the limits when computing
∫
0
π
sin
x
cos
(
sin
x
)
d
x
\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi} \sin x\,\cos(\sin x)\,dx
∫
0
π
sin
x
cos
(
sin
x
)
d
x
, it is not necessary to convert the antiderivative back to a function of
x
x
x
before evaluating the integral.
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