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Mathematics
Mathematics
Problem
1. Show that the function
f
:
R
∗
→
R
∗
f: \mathbf{R}_{*} \rightarrow \mathbf{R}_{*}
f
:
R
∗
→
R
∗
defined by
f
(
x
)
=
1
x
f(x)=\frac{1}{x}
f
(
x
)
=
x
1
is one-one and onto, where
R
∗
\mathbf{R}_{*}
R
∗
is the set of all non-zero real numbers. Is the result true, if the domain
R
∗
\mathbf{R}_{*}
R
∗
is replaced by
N
\mathbf{N}
N
with co-domain being same as
R
∗
\mathbf{R}_{*}
R
∗
?
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