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Mathematics
Mathematics
Problem
8. If either
a
⃗
=
0
→
\vec{a}=\overrightarrow{0}
a
=
0
or
b
⃗
=
0
→
\vec{b}=\overrightarrow{0}
b
=
0
, then
a
⃗
×
b
⃗
=
0
→
\vec{a} \times \vec{b}=\overrightarrow{0}
a
×
b
=
0
. Is the converse true? Justify your answer with an example.
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