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Mathematics
Problem
Prove the following (Exercises 32 to 37) 36.
∫
0
π
4
2
tan
3
x
d
x
=
1
−
log
2
\int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{4}} 2 \tan ^{3} x d x=1-\log 2
∫
0
4
π
2
tan
3
x
d
x
=
1
−
lo
g
2
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